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categories: Re: adjoint equivalence
>Hi, I have a question. If P and Q are objects in a 2-category C,
>and there is an equivalence between them, must there be an adjoint
>equivalence (an adjunction whose unit and counit are both
>isomorphisms) between them?
The answer is yes. Let f : Q --> P and u : P --> Q be arrows in a
2-category K with an invertible 2-cell e : f u --> 1 and some
invertible 2-cell q : 1 --> u f (some say f is quasi-inverse to
u). The existence of q implies that the functor K(X,f) is fully
faithful for all objects X of K. We define the unit n : 1 --> u
f by the condition that f n should be the inverse of e f (using
fullness of K(Q,f)). So one adjunction triangle is satisfied. The
other follows by the faithfulness of K(P,f).
An application of this is that a pseudonatural transformation
(between pseudofunctors) which is a pointwise equivalence has a
quasi-inverse pseudonatural transformation.
--Ross